A search of the www shows a long list of sites devoted to the “70 sevens” prophecy at Daniel 9. This prophecy is notable for the specific time periods, people and events it foretells.
Using a range of starting events and dates, most of these interpretations of the prophecy land on some event in the ministry of Jesus Christ and on his death. This interpretation is lauded by them as proof that Jesus Christ is the prophesied promised Messiah.
If the prophecy specifically points to Jesus Christ, why did no NT writer use Daniel 9 in this way? The NT writers were quite prepared to freely reapply so many other OT passages to Jesus, yet not one writer applied Daniel 9 to him. Why?
Hint #1. The apostle Paul, who died in 64 CE before the destruction of Jerusalem, at 2 Thessalonians 2 applied Daniel 9:26-27 (also 11:31, 45; 12:11) to events as imminent, but still future.
Hint #2. The Gospels were written after the Roman attacks on Jerusalem (66-70 CE). When they referred to the prophecy, with Matthew clarifying that Mark meant Daniel, they applied it to that the destruction of Jerusalem.
What does this tell us?
Doug